CHM 212

FINAL EXAM

SPRING, 1996

1. Calculate molarity of 50.0 mL of 1.00 M NaOH diluted to 200 mLs.

(a) 0.500 (b) 1.20 (c) 0.100 (d) 0.250 (e) 0.050

2. Concentrated aqueous NH3 is 28% NH3 by mass and has a density of 0.900 g/mL. What is the molarity (M)?

(a) 5.60 (b) 14.8 (c) 1.25 (d) 17.8 (e) 9.75

3. Which of the following aqueous solutions would have the lowest freezing point?

(a) 0.05 m HCl (b) 0.05 m CaCl2 (c) 0.10 m NaCl

(d) 0.05 m KBr (e) 0.10 m NH3

4. Which of the following is not a colligative property of solutions?

(a) vapor pressure lowering (b) boiling point elevation (c) freezing point depression

(d) osmotic pressure (e) EMF

5. How many moles of H2SO4 are there in 0.600 L of 1.25 M H2SO4?

(a) 0.75 (b) 1.1 (c) 0.64 (d) 0.32 (e) 0.044

answers 1-5 dbcea

6. The rate law for the reaction of NO with H2 is first order in H2 and second order in NO. If the rate constant is 3.0 x 104 M/s, what is the reaction rate when NO is 0.010 M and H2 is 0.50M?

(a) 150 (b) 0.30 (c) 1.5 (d) 1500 (e) 1.5 x 105

7. For the reaction 2NO + Br2 ® 2NOBr, the following data are available. Determine the rate law for the reaction.

(NO) 0.10 0.05 0.05
(Br2) 0.10 0.10 0.05
Initial Rate 2.0 x 10-2 1.0 x 10-2 2.5 x 10-3 M/s

(a) k(NO) (Br2) (b) k(NO) (Br2)2 (c) k(NO)2 (Br2)

(d) k(NO)2 (e) k(NO)2 (Br2)2

8. The half-life of a first order reaction is 30 seconds. How many minutes will it take for the initial amount to be reduced by 87.5%?

(a) 1.5 (b) 4.5 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0 (e) 1.0

9. For the reaction, 2HI ® H2 + I2, D E = 25 kJ and the activation energy is 44 kJ. What is the activation energy for the reverse reaction?

(a) 69 kJ (b) -25 kJ (c) -44 kJ (d) 94 kJ (e) 19 kJ

10. In a multistep reaction mechanism, the step which is most important in determining the overall rate of the reaction is the:

(a) last step (b) first step (c) fastest step

(d) slowest step (e) biggest step

answers 6-10 cbaed

11. Consider the equilibrium CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) +H2O(g), where Kp = 0.11. If
1 atmosphere of each of these gases is placed in an appropriate reaction vessel, in which direction would the reaction move in order to reach equilibrium?

(a) No shift, the reaction would be at equilibrium.

(b) shift to the left

(c) shift to the right

(d) No shift takes place unless a catalyst is added.

(e) shift to down

12. Solid, pure NH4HS is introduced into an evacuated flask at 24° C. The following reaction takes place:

NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g).

At equilibrium the total pressure was 0.614 atm. What is the value of Kp?

(a) 0.377 (b) 0.784 (c) 0.614 (d) 0.0942 (e) 0.541

13. Consider the equilibrium A + 2B 3C + D (all gases). The initial concentrations of both A and B are 1.0 molar. At equilibrium the concentration of D was determined to be 0.20 molar. Calculate the equilibrium constant.

(a) 6.67 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.0031 (d) 0.15 (e) 4.0

14. Consider the equilibrium, C(s) + CO2(g) 2CO(g) where D H = 120 kJ. If the temperature is increased, which one of the following would be true.

(a) The concentration of CO2 would increase.

(b) The concentration of C would increase.

(c) The value of the equilibrium constant would decrease.

(d) No change in concentration would take place.

(e) The concentration of CO would increase.

15. The correct equilibrium expression for N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is:

(a) (b) (c)

(d) (e)

answers 11-15 bddec

16. What is the pOH of a 0.0727 M H3O+ solution?

(a) 0.0727 (b) 1.14 (c) 7.00 (d) 12.9 (e) 13.9

17. What is the pH of a 0.150 M solution of a weak acid whose Ka = 2.5 x 10-6?

(a) 1.75 (b) 9.45 (c) 6.13 (d) 5.40 (e) 3.21

18. Which of the following will have the strongest conjugate base?

(a) HCl (b) HF (c) HNO3 (d) HBr (e) HI

19. Which of the following would be the strongest acid?

(a) H2CO3 (b) HClO3 (c) HClO4 (d) HClO2 (e) HClO

20. Which of the following results in a neutral solution in water?

(a) (CH3)3NHCl (b) NaOCl (c) NaF (d) NaClO4 (e)NH4Cl

answers 16-20 debcd

21. A Lewis acid is:

(a) a proton acceptor (b) an electron pair acceptor

(c) a substance that ionizes to produce hydroxides (d) a proton donor

(e) an electron pair donor

22. Which of the following pairs would be a buffer in water solution?

(a) NaOH, NaC2H3O2 (b) Na2CO3, H2O (c) HCl, KCl

(d) H2S, NaHS (e) HNO3, HC2H3O2

23. What is the pH of a solution that contains 0.35 M of CH3NH3Cl (methylamine hydrochloride)
and 1.1 M CH3NH2 (methylamine) [Kb methylamine = 4.4 x 10-4]

(a) 1.7 (b) 2.9 (c) 7.0 (d) 10.2 (e) 11.1

24. If 1.00 mL of 1.0 M HCl was added to 1 liter of the above solution, what would the new pH
be. You may assume that there is negligible change in volume.

(a) 2.9 (b) 3.0 (c) 7.0 (d) 10.2 (e) 11.1

25. Calculate the iodide ion concentration in a saturated solution of lead (II) iodide.
[Ksp = 1.39 x 10-8].

(a) 4.21 x 10-4 M (b) 3.03 x 10-3 M (c) 1.51 x 10-3 M

(d) 3.48 x 10-9 M (e) 2.79 x 10-8 M

answers 21-25 bdeeb

26. The Ksp for Ag2S is 1.0 x 10-51. What is the molar solubility of Ag2S?

(a) 1.0 x 10-17 (b) 7.9 x 10-18 (c) 6.3 x10 -18

(d) 8.3 x 10-53 (e) 3.3 x 10-52

27. Assume that for the process H2(g) ® 2 H (g), D Ho = +500 kJ. What would be predicted for the sign of D Srxn and the conditions under which this reaction would be spontaneous?

D Srxn Spontaneous

(a) positive at low temperatures only

(b) positive at high temperatures only

(c) negative at high temperatures only

(d) negative at low temperatures only

28. What are the signs of the enthalpy and entropy for the vaporization of benzene?

C6H6 (l) ® C6H6 (g)

D Ho D So

(a) + +

(b) + -

(c) - +

(d) - -

29. Which condition describes a reaction at equilibrium?

(a) D G = 0 (b) D Go = 0 (c) D Go = D Go (d) ln K = 0

30. Balance the following reaction in acid solution:

MnO4-(aq) + H2O2 (aq) ® Mn2+(aq) + O2(g)

What is the number of protons in the final chemical equation?

(a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 16 (d) 24 (e) 0

answers 26-30 cbaaa

31. Consider these half reactions:

Hg2+ + 2e- ® Hg Eored = +0.851 and

Mn2+ + 2e- ® Mn Eored = -1.04

A battery made from these materials would have an EMF of ______ and the anode would be made of _________.

(a) +1.89V, mercury (b) +1.89V, manganese (c) -1.89V, mercury (d) -1.89V, manganese (e) +0.189V, mercury

32. During the process of recharging the battery in question 31, which statement would be correct?

(a) the anode, mercury, would dissolve

(b) the cathode, mercury, would dissolve

(c) the anode, manganese, would dissolve

(d) the cathode, manganese would dissolve

33. When the half reaction ClO ® Cl is completed and balanced for acidic solution, the balanced reaction will show:

(a) two protons as reactants (b) one electron as a reactant

(c) four OH(aq) as products (d) four OH as reactants
(e) Two H2O molecules as products

34. Which of the following nuclei is most likely to be unstable?

(a) 40Ar (b) 13C (c) 4He (d) 40K (e) 28Si

35. Elements above the belt of stability (n/p too high) react by _____ to generate more stable nuclei.

(a) decomposition of a proton into a neutron with release of a positron

(b) electron capture

(c) g-ray emmision

(d) decomposition of a neutron into a proton with release of a beta particle

(e) a-particle emmision

answers 31-35 baadd

36. Elements beyond the belt of stability (very large nuclei) tend to decay by which of the following processes to yield more stable nuclei?

(a) a-particle emission (b) b-particle emission (c) g-ray emission

(d) electron capture (e) positron emission

37. Which of the following is false?

(a) Protons are a type of nucleon.

(b) Alpha particle emission tends to be a high energy process.

(c) The externally induced conversion of one nucleus into another is called nuclear

transmutation

(d) For light nuclei, the optimum neutron-to-proton ratio is about 1:1.

(e) All isotopes of technicium and promethium are radioactive.

38. Complete the following nuclear reaction: 252Cf + 10B * Æ 3 1n + ______

(a) 262Lr (b) 259Cf (c) 262Np (d) 259Fm (e) 259Lr

39. Which of the following is not associated with nitrogen?

(a) All oxidation states -3 to +5 are known. (b) N2 has a low boiling point.

(c) N2 is very reactive. (d) N2 is colorless and odorless

(e) All are true.

40. Which of the following is false?

(a) Ionization energy decreases down and left across the periodic table.

(b) Metals usually react with non-metals to yield salts.

(c) Elements of the second-row differ from those of lower rows in part because they

are smaller and more electronegative.

(d) Lower row elements never form hydrogen bonds.

(e) All are true.

answers 36-40 (a?)(e?)ec(e or d or c?)

41. Ionization energy _____ across the periodic table.

(a) increases up and right (b) increases up and left

(c) increases down and left (d) increases down and right

(e) is fairly constant

42. Which of the following is the least stable molecule?

(a) SbH3 (b) AsH3 (c) BiH3 (d) NH3 (e) PH3

43. Xenon forms a large variety of compounds with which element?

(a) C (b) I (c) Br (d) Cl (e) F

44. Which of the following is NOT generally a characteristic of metals?

(a) luster (b) malleability (c) ductility

(d) good electrical conductor (e) high electron affinity

45. Which of the following could exhibit ferromagnetism?

(a) H2O(l) (b) O2(g) (c) Fe(s) (d) C (graphite) (e) F2(g)

answers 41-45 aceec

For questions 48-52, consider the following complex.

[Co(en)2F2]NO3

46. The oxidation state of Co would be

(a) 0 (b) +1 (c) +2 (d) +3 (e) +5

47. The coordination number of Co would be

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 5 (e) 8

48. The number of unpaired electrons on Co in a low spin (spin paired) complex would be

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4

49. Complexes of this type would exhibit

(a) geometrical isomerism

(b) structural isomerism

(c) optical isomerism

(d) a, b, and c

(e) a and c

50. When ligands are arranged in order of increasing octahedral splitting energy, we have

(a) the activity series

(b) the isoelectronic series

(c) the spectrochemical series

(d) the crystal field series

(e) the world series

 answers 46-50 dca(?d)c